Did Jesus die for all the sins of the whole world or only for the sins of the elect?
Jesus did not die for "x" number of sins. The simple fact is that Jesus died--and the death of Jesus was and is sufficient for all the sins of the world. If there was only one sinner in the world and they had only committed one sin, then would Jesus still had to have suffered and died as He did? Would the wrath of God been any less severe--I don't think so. God hates sin and must punish it severely.
If every person in the world, for all times, believed in Jesus, then the death of Jesus would have been sufficient to cover those sins. If 50%, or 25%, or 5%, or only 1% percent ever believed in Jesus, then Jesus' death would cover only their sins, but could have covered more. Bottom line, Jesus' death is sufficient to cover any who believe.
Since there was an election, then God knew exactly who the death of Jesus would be applied to. But what Jesus suffered on the cross, and all that led up to it, would have been the same no matter the number who would or would not have believed.
Added to Bible Bulletin Board's "Tony Capoccia's Questions and Answers" by:
Bible Bulletin Board
Columbus, New Jersey, USA, 08022
Our websites: www.biblebb.com and www.gospelgems.com
Online since 1986