Was the holiness of Christ superseded when He became sin for all? He has all the attributes of the Father, including holiness, and yet He took the sins of the world upon Himself. I know this is complex, because I have Christ in me and yet I sin, so there must be an explanation. .
Christ's holiness was never marred by becoming the sin-bearer. Christ never sinned, and thus was a perfect "man", and thus the only sacrifice for sin that God the Father would ever accept. Christ became sin only in the sense that He bore our sins, that is, the punishment and shame of the sins, but He was always innocent.
It is like an innocent man who is wrongfully arrested for murder. He is innocent, even though he is tried and convicted, and sent to prison--he is still an innocent person. He may sit on death row, or be executed, yet he never committed the crime, thus his innocence remains. He was treated like a criminal and punished for something that he didn't do.
Likewise, our lovely Savior, was innocent of any sin, yet He bore our sins and was charged for them and went to Calvary and suffered the death and shame as a criminal. God the Father treated Him as a sinner, and even caused Christ to cry out, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" God the Father had to pour out His full wrath on Christ the sinless one. If Christ actually had any sin on His soul then God the Father could not have accepted His death as a perfect sacrifice, thus no resurrection, and no hope for us, but praise be to the Living God, our Christ is the sinless and Holy One in whom we have the hope of our salvation.
Added to Bible Bulletin Board's "Tony Capoccia's Questions and Answers" by:
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